“If it is true that ‘whoever says, “You fool!” will be liable to the hell of fire,’ then why did both Jesus and his apostles call people fools?”
Normally the questions answered in this series of posts come from anonymous sources, all of whom are (at least
to the best of my knowledge) actual people. Their problems may be real or
hypothetical (or, in at least one case, just plain old trolling), but
I answer them here because their writers make a decent effort to submit questions
we have good reason to believe might be of concern to our readers or people
they know.
In this case, I freely admit I submitted this one to myself just for the dubious pleasure of working
it through.















