It is awfully useful to observe how and where people go
wrong in interpreting scripture.
If, say, a Universalist misappropriates a particular text to
serve his cause, you can bet Calvinists, Amillennialists, Prosperity Gospel
folks or whoever will use a similar bag of tricks to get
where they want to go too.
In perusing Universalist websites for a previous post, I
noticed many of them have this is common: they are fond of pointing to the word
“all”, as though its employment in any context decisively proves their point. I
suppose this preoccupation is easily understood, given the nature of their
particular doctrinal aberration.
How can we go about making Scripture say whatever we’d like
it to?
Let’s examine a couple of Universalist examples of verses in
which the word “all” is used, and the Universalist arguments in their own
words, to see how (or perhaps if) they
got where they wanted to go:
A Ransom for All
First, an example of what we might call the “Blowing Smoke”
school of interpretation.
The quote:
“Who gave himself a ransom for all.” (1 Timothy 2:6)
The Universalist explanation:
“The fact is that Jesus can lose no one. That is the greatest message you have ever heard. You can not save more than everyone, can you? And Jesus is not allowed to save less.”
When you don’t actually have a point or when your
explanation has nothing to do with the verse you’re quoting, it may help to
adorn it with superlatives, like: “That is the greatest message you have ever
heard”.
Maybe, but I cannot find a single thing in the verse being
quoted that relates to what follows, can you?
If I were a Universalist, I might find ways to try to use
that verse to make my point. I could take the position, for instance, that “all”
means “everybody in the whole world throughout all of history”. So,
hypothetically, if the Lord Jesus ransomed all, then the ransom has been paid
for everyone’s sin, and God must forgive everyone on that basis.
Of course, assuming that I’m a Universalist, that doesn’t
get me where I want to go either, does it? Paying a ransom is simply one part
of a transaction. The ransom also has to be accepted. The prisoner must also be
freed.
What happens when those for whom the price has been paid don’t
want redemption? That’s pretty much analogous to the situation the unsaved find
themselves in, isn’t it. You tell them a ransom has been paid, and many just
shrug.
Some don’t acknowledge the authority of the Judge.
Some deny they’re in jail.
Most think they can beat the charges and would prefer to
make bail on their own.
Still, that’s the case I’d try to make from the phrase “a
ransom for all”. But this writer doesn’t even bother doing that.
Instead, he makes four unrelated statements:
1. “Jesus can lose no one” [true, assuming they are “his”
in the first place, but not in any way related to the verse];
2. “This is the greatest message you have ever heard” [unsubstantiated
self-promotion];
3. “You cannot save more than everyone, can you?” [again,
true, but not on point]; and
4. “Jesus is not allowed to save less” [I’d be awfully careful
about telling God the Son what he’s ‘not allowed’, myself].
The poor verse never even has a chance to get a word in
edgewise.
All Should
Come to Repentance
Second, an excellent example of over-reliance on an
English/Greek dictionary:
The quote:
“[The Lord is] … not willing that any should perish but that all should come to repentance.” (2 Peter 3:9)
The Universalist explanation:
“The Greek word there for “willing” is boulomenoV (Boulomenos) and it means, to will deliberately, to have a purpose. The deliberate will of God is His purpose. Therefore, if His deliberate will is that no one should perish, His purpose must be for all to be saved.”
Sorry, but is not enough to look up the meaning of a Greek
word in your dictionary. You need to observe how the word is used in Scripture
if you want your argument to have any sort of intellectual heft or spiritual
impact. If not, anyone who knows even a little Greek will have you for lunch.
And whether or not this Universalist has got his ducks in a row
about the dictionary definition (I didn’t check), he’s all wet with respect to its
actual Scriptural usage. From even a quick-and-dirty usage check, it is
abundantly clear that boulomenoV, far from being a rock-solid indication of “purposed
will”, more often than not simply denotes a preference:
·
When John says “I would rather not use paper and
ink”, the words “would rather” translate boulomenoV.
· When, writing about Diotrephes, John says “he
refuses to welcome the brothers, and also stops those who want to”, the words “want
to” translate boulomenoV.
·
When Luke records that “Paul wished to go in
among the crowd”, the words “wished to” yet again translate boulomenoV.
boulomenoV is certainly
used — albeit very rarely — to describe “purposed will”. Romans 9:9 is a good
example, where Paul puts words in the mouth of those who disagree with him and
asks, “who can resist [God’s] will?” In that instance, his meaning is most certainly
“purposed will”.
But you can’t get that from the Greek. You get it from context.
Now, we know where the Universalist wants to get to with
this, of course. He just can’t get to it from Greek words. So he trots out the
Greek anyway and hopes you won’t look for yourself. (I’m giving him credit for being smart but immoral here; it’s always possible he doesn’t even realize his argument is a non-starter.)
He could certainly try to make a case, if he wished, by
insisting that God’s will is ALWAYS “purposed will” because he’s God. But he doesn’t,
because if he did, he’d be a Calvinist as well as a Universalist. And of
course, he’d have to prove that point from other Scriptures instead of relying
on the quick fix of an appeal to a pseudo-authority.
And Speaking of Context …
This is why bringing up verses out of context as proof texts
for deviant theology is often a horrible, horrible mistake. Bear in mind that I
didn’t bring up 2 Peter 3:9, the Universalists did.
And now, have a look at the context of that verse.
Peter is talking about God’s judgement and how it appears to
be delayed. In the last days, he says, “mockers” will say “Where is the promise
of his coming?”
This is where Peter tells us the Lord is “not willing” that
any should perish.
How does this ‘unwillingness’ manifest itself? In removing
the prospect of judgment entirely? No, Peter says it is demonstrated in
patience. God gives every opportunity for men to accept his offer of salvation.
Because — and here’s your punch line — Peter says:
“… the heavens and earth that now exist are stored up for fire, being kept until the day of judgment and destruction of the ungodly.”
Wait, “judgment and destruction of the ungodly”? That’s the
exact opposite of what the Universalist is looking to prove, and it’s the theme
of the entire chapter.
Frankly, if I were a Universalist, I’d avoid 2 Peter
like the plague.
But that’s just me.
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